Question to Consider
Is the ‘elder’s’ expression of his “wish above all things” that Gaius “prosper and be in health, even as thy soul prospereth” the will of God, and thus a promise of God, to all of us?
Beloved, I wish above all things that thou mayest prosper and be in health, even as thy soul prospereth.
3 John 2 (KJV)
Lot’s of people have been hurt by the so-called prosperity gospel, but we have to separate what men and women may say about prosperity from what God’s Word says about it. Let’s examine it here in the context of Third John. To have the full context, please see my translation here and come back to this post.
Here are the factors that need to be resolved.
- the language is expressed as a wish;
- it is expressed as John’s personal wish;
- it is directed expressly to one man, Gaius
There are a few of other verses in the New Testament where similar sentiments are expressed I.e., the writer wishing, praying, or hoping for something: See 2 Cor. 13:7; Phil 1:9; Phil 4:17; and 1 Thess 5:23. (Phil 4:17 is talking about Paul’s desire that something happen to the Philippians (i.e., that fruit may abound to their account), that will naturally happen as a condition if they take a certain action (i.e., that they “sent once and again unto” Paul’s necessity). Here, Paul is not wishing/praying/hoping for some effect, but he’s wishing/praying/hoping that the Philippians will do some thing that will result in some effect. It’s the same basic principle as the others, but there is a condition attached to this one. In this case, more specifically, the Philippians had already done the act, and he was assured that fruit would abound to their account as a result of their having done the act (of giving to his necessity).
Then there are some that clearly express the author’s personal desire to do something, be somewhere, or have some condition occur: 2 Cor. 12:18; Gal 4:20; Eph 3:13; Phil 2:23; and 2 Tim 4:16.
There is also one where the writer is talking about the concept of prayer itself: 1 Cor 14:14.
So, how do we get from a ‘’wish” from “one man” to “one man” to this sentence represents the will of God for all men? Or can we? The short answer is not only can we, but we must.
How do we know that this wish reflects the will of God?
The wish addressed in 3 John and these other passages were written by the Biblical authors. These authors are writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. If the Holy Spirit is inspiring John (in this case, but Paul in the other examples) to express this wish, it cannot be against the will of God. On the contrary, what John’s writing as a desire, must be an expression of God’s desire.
How do we know that this wish is a promise to Gaius?
The language expressed as a “wish” is a prayer we know that will be answered. When Jesus prayed (in the same manner that John prays here), His prayers were answered (Mk 5:23, Lk 16:27, Jn 17:9, and Jn 17:15). Jesus said that our prayers would be answered; when we pray we can expect that our prayers be answered. E.g., Jn 14:12. See my note “Answered Prayer is a Biblical Certainty.” Therefore, if John prayed for Gaius, we can expect that his prayer was answered.
If it was a promise to Gaius then it was God’s will for Gaius.
How do we know that this promise to Gaius is God’s will for us all?
If it was God’s will for Gaius, then it is God’s will, and a promise, for us all. God is no respecter or persons. So what He does for one he does for others. (See Lev 19:15, Deut 16:19, Prov 24:23, Acts 10:34, Rom 2:11, Eph 6:9, Col 3:25, James 2:1, James 2:9, and 1 Pet. 1:17.)
How do we experience this aspect of God’s will for us?
We receive it by faith. Coming soon: See my Field Notes on faith, and particularly my note “the promise is God’s but the responsibility is ours.”
What is your takeaway?
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